Module 9 Review



MODULE 9 REVIEW
1.
Vacation benefits are a form of estimated liabilities for an employer.
A) True
B) False

2.
An employee earned $47,000 during the year working for an employer. The FICA tax for social security is 6.2% and the FICA tax for Medicare is 1.45%. The employee's share of FICA taxes is:
A) $3,595.50
B) Zero, since the employee's pay exceeds the FICA limit
C) $681.50
D) $2,914.00
E) $7,191.00

3.
Which of the following is a true statement?
A) IFRS treats accounts payable, sales taxes payable and unearned revenues as estimated liabilities while GAAP treats them as contingent liabilities.
B) None of the statements above are true statement.
C) GAAP treats accounts payable, sales taxes payable and unearned revenues as estimated liabilities while IFRS treats them as contingent liabilities.
D) GAAP and IFRS treat accounts payable, sales taxes payable and unearned revenues in a similar manner as estimated liabilities.
E) GAAP and IFRS treat accounts payable, sales taxes payable and unearned revenues in a similar manner as determinable liabilities.
 
4.
On December 1, Martin Company signed a $5,000 3-month 6% note payable, with the principle plus interest due on March 1 of the following year. What amount of interest expense is accrued at December 31 on the note?
A) $300
B) $50
C) $25
D) $75
E) $0

5.
A company can have a liability even if the amount of the obligation is unknown.
A) True
B) False

6.
A payroll register is a cumulative record of an employee's hours worked, gross earnings, deductions and net pay.
A) True
B) False

7.
A short-term note payable:
A) Is a written promise to pay a specified amount on a definite future date within one year or the company's operating cycle, whichever is longer
B) Is not a liability until the due date
C) Is a contingent liability
D) Is an estimated liability
E) Cannot be used to extend the payment period for an account payable

8.
The employer should record payroll deductions as:
A) Payroll taxes
B) Employee receivables
C) Current liabilities
D) Employee payables
E) Wages payable

9.
Known liabilities are obligations set by agreements, contracts or laws and are measurable and definitely determinable.
A) True
B) False

10.
If a company had net income of $2,379,600, interest expense of 234,000, a tax rate of 40%, and operating income of 4,200,000, what would the times interest earned ratio be for the company?
A) 7.18
B) 4.07
C) 10.17
D) 7.78
E) 17.95

11.
Most employees and employers are required to pay:
A) Local payroll taxes
B) Both B and C only
C) Local, state and federal payroll taxes
D) Federal payroll taxes
E) State payroll taxes

12.
A table that shows the amount of federal income tax to be withheld from an employee's pay is the:
A) Form 941
B) W-2
C) Tax table
D) Wage bracket withholding table
E) W-4
 
13.
A special bank account used solely for the purpose of paying employees, is created by depositing the amount of each employees' net pay into the account every pay period. This account is referred to as a(n):
A) Employee's Individual Earnings account
B) Federal depository bank account
C) Employees' bank account
D) Payroll register account
E) Payroll bank account

14.
Amounts received in advance from customers for future products or services:
A) Are revenues
B) Require an outlay of cash in the future
C) Are liabilities
D) Are not allowed under GAAP
E) Increase income

15.
Gross pay is:
A) Deductions withheld by an employer
B) The amount of the paycheck
C) Take-home pay
D) Total compensation earned by an employee before any deductions
E) Salaries after taxes are deducted

16.
A short-term note payable is a written promise to pay a specified amount on a definite future date within one year or the operating cycle, whichever is longer.
A) True
B) False

17.
The deferred income tax liability:
A) Is recorded whether or not the difference between taxable income and financial accounting income is permanent or temporary
B) Is never recorded
C) Is a contingent liability
D) Represents income tax payments that are deferred until future years because of temporary differences between GAAP rules and tax accounting rules
E) Can result in a deferred income tax asset

18.
 Mission Company has three employees:
 

          The company is subject to the following taxes:
 




 
What is Mission Company's amount for payroll taxes for Cain?
A) $2,241.45
B) $1,973.70
C) $267.75
D) $1,705.95
E) $484.75

19.
Accounts payable:
A) Do not include specific due dates
B) Must be paid within 30 days
C) Are amounts owed to suppliers for products and/or services purchased on credit
D) Are long-term liabilities
E) Are estimated liabilities

20.
Each employee records the number of withholding allowances claimed on form W-4, the withholding allowance certificate that is filed with the employer.
A) True
B) False

Module 8 Review

MODULE 8
1.
A company purchased equipment valued at $200,000 on January 1. The equipment has an estimated useful life of six years or five million units. The equipment is estimated to have a salvage value of $13,400. Assuming the straight-line method of depreciation, what is the book value at the end of the second year if 1.5 million units were produced?
A) $96,416.25
B) $88,977.80
C) $166,667.00
D) $137,800.00
E) $168,900.00
 
2.
A company sold a machine that originally cost $100,000 for $60,000 cash. The accumulated depreciation on the machine was $40,000. The company should recognize a:
A) $0 gain or loss
B) $20,000 loss
C) $20,000 gain
D) $40,000 loss
E) $60,000 gain

3.
A plant asset's useful life might not be the same as its productive life.
A) True
B) False

4.
Gain or loss on the disposal of an asset is determined by comparing "value given" (book value) to "value received".
A) True
B) False

5.
A company had average total assets of $897,000. Its gross sales were $1,090,000 and its net sales were $1,000,000. The company's total asset turnover is equal to:
A) 1.26
B) 1.11
C) 0.82
D) 1.09
E) 0.90

6.
A company purchased a delivery van for $23,000 with a salvage value of $3,000 on September 1, 2010. It has an estimated useful life of 5 years. Using the straight-line method, how much depreciation expense should the company recognize on December 31, 2010?
A) $4,600
B) $1,533
C) $4,000
D) $1,333
E) $1,000

7.
A company purchased equipment valued at $200,000 on January 1. The equipment has an estimated useful life of six years or five million units. The equipment is estimated to have a salvage value of $13,400. Assuming the double declining balance method of depreciation, what is the book value at the end of the second year if 1.5 million units were produced?
A) $137,800.00
B) $168,900.00
C) $96,416.25
D) $166,667.00
E) $88,977.80

8.
Goodwill is the amount by which the value of a company's the value of its individual assets and liabilities.
A) True
B) False

9.
Depreciation is the process of allocating the cost of a plant asset to an expense account in the accounting periods benefiting from its use.
A) True
B) False

10.
An assets' cost includes all normal and reasonable expenditures necessary to get the asset in place and ready for its intended use.
A) True
B) False

11.
Endor Fishing Company exchanged an old boat for a new one. The old boat had a cost of $260,000 and accumulated depreciation of $200,000. The new boat had an invoice price of $400,000. Endor received a trade in allowance of $100,000 on the old boat, which meant they paid $300,000 in addition to the old boat to acquire the new boat. What amount of gain or loss should be recorded on this exchange?
A) $40,000 gain
B) $60,000 loss
C) $100,000 loss
D) $0 gain or loss
E) $40,000 loss

12.
A company purchased a tract of land for its natural resources at a cost of $1,500,000. It expects to mine 2,000,000 tons of ore from this land. The salvage value of the land is expected to be $250,000. The depletion expense per ton of ore is:
A) $0.75
B) $0.875
C) $0.625
D) $6.00
E) $8.00

13.
A company sold equipment for $50,000. Total accumulated depreciation at the time of the sale was $20,000 and a loss of $10,000 was recognized on the sale. What was the original cost of the asset?
A) $30,000
B) $80,000
C) $60,000
D) $40,000
E) $70,000

14.
Plant assets are:
A) Held for sale
B) Tangible assets used in the operation of a business that have a useful life of more than one accounting period
C) Current assets
D) Intangible assets used in the operations of a business that have a useful life of more than one accounting period
E) Tangible assets used in the operation of business that have a useful life of less than one accounting period

15.
A depreciable asset currently has a $24,500 book value. The company owning the asset uses straight-line depreciation. They paid $37,000 for this asset and consider it to have a $2,000 salvage value with a seven year useful life. How long has the company owned this asset?
A) 2.1 years
B) Cannot be determined from the given information
C) 2.36 years
D) 7 years
E) 2.5 years

16.
A patent:
A) Is the amount by which the value of a company exceeds the fair market value of a company's net assets if purchased separately
B) Is an exclusive right granted to its owner to manufacture and sell a device or to use a process for 50 years
C) Gives its owner the exclusive right to publish and sell a musical or literary work during the life of the creator plus 50 years
D) Gives its owner the exclusive right to publish and sell a musical or literary work during the life of the creator plus 17 years
E) Is an exclusive right granted to its owner to manufacture and sell a device or to use a process for 20 years

17.
Extraordinary repairs:
A) Are expensed as incurred
B) Extend an asset's useful life beyond its original estimate
C) Are credited to accumulated depreciation
D) Are additional costs of plant assets that do not materially increase the asset's life
E) Are revenue expenditures

18.
The total cost of an asset less its accumulated depreciation is called:
A) Book value
B) Replacement cost
C) Current (market) value
D) Present value
E) Historical cost

19.
The useful life of a plant asset is:
A) Determined by law
B) Never related to its physical life
C) Its productive life, but not to exceed one year
D) The length of time it is used productively in a company's operations
E) Determined by the FASB

20.
Cobb Corn Company purchases a large lot on which a building is located. The negotiated purchase price is $2,500,000 for the lot and the building. The company pays $71,500 in commissions and taxes. The appraisal values of each items is as follows: Land $650,000, Building $1,750,000, Land Improvements $120,000. What is the appropriate amount to be entered into the general journal for the building?
A) $1,784,621
B) $1,735,000
C) $1,685,379
D) $1,750,000
E) $1,730,000

Module 7 Review


MODULE 7 REVIEW
1.
Wallah Company agreed to accept $5,000 in cash along with an $8,000, 90-day, 13.5% note from customer Judith Klemper to settle her $13,000 past-due account. How should Wallah record this transaction?
A)



B)



C)

D)



2.
A company borrowed $1,000 by signing a six month promissory note at 5% interest. The total amount of interest on this promissory note is $25.
A) True
B) False

3.
The aging method of determining bad debts expense is based on the knowledge that the longer a receivable is past due, the lower the likelihood of collection.
A) True
B) False

4.
A company had an accounts receivable turnover ratio of 12 and net sales of $744,000 for a given period. What was the average amount of accounts receivables for this period?
A) $8,928,000
B) $4,380
C) Average accounts receivable cannot be determined from this information
D) $62,000
E) $169.86

5.
When using the allowance method of accounting for uncollectible accounts, the entry to write off Harold's uncollectible account is a debit to Allowance for Doubtful Accounts and a credit to Accounts Receivable - Harold.
A) True
B) False
6.
The advantage of the allowance method of accounting for uncollectible accounts is that it identifies the specific customers who do not pay their bills.
A) True
B) False
 
7.
Chiller Company has credit sales of $5.60 million for year 2010. Chiller estimates that 1.32% of the credit sales will not be collected. Historically, 4% of outstanding accounts receivable is uncollectible. On December 31, 2010, the company's Allowance for Doubtful Accounts has an unadjusted credit balance of $3561. Chiller prepares a schedule of its December 31, 2010, accounts receivable by age. Based on past experience, it estimates the percent of receivables in each age category that will become uncollectible. This information is summarized here:
 





Assuming the company uses the percent of sales method, what is the amount that Chiller will enter as the Bad Debt Expense in the December 31 adjusting journal entry?
A) $66,167.80
B) $73,920.00
C) $48,317.41
D) $70,359.00
E) $55,439.41

8.
It is never good practice to accept a note receivable in exchange for an overdue account receivable.
A) True
B) False

9.
The matching principle requires that accrued interest on outstanding notes receivable be recorded at the end of each accounting period.
A) True
B) False

10.
The following information is from the annual financial statements of Nancy Company.
 



What is the accounts receivable turnover ratio for 2009?
A) 5.40
B) 5.20
C) 6.72
D) 4.97
E) 6.41
 
11.
When using the allowance method of accounting for uncollectible accounts, the recovery of a bad debt would be recorded as a debit to Cash and a credit to Bad Debts Expense.
A) True
B) False

12.
Companies use two methods to account for uncollectible accounts: the direct write-off method and the allowance method.
A) True
B) False

13.
The materiality principle permits the use of the direct write-off method of accounting for uncollectible accounts when bad debts are very large in comparison to the company's other financial statement items such as sales and net income.
A) True
B) False

14.
Temper Company has credit sales of $3.10 million for year 2010. Temper estimates that 2% of accounts receivable will remain uncollectible. Historically, .9% of sales have been uncollectible. On December 31, 2010, the company's Allowance for Doubtful Accounts has an unadjusted debit balance of $2,575. Temper prepares a schedule of its December 31, 2010, accounts receivable by age. Based on past experience, it estimates the percent of receivables in each age category that will become uncollectible. This information is summarized here:
 
Assuming the company uses the percent of accounts receivable method, what is the amount that Temper will enter as the Bad Debt Expense in the December 31 adjusting journal entry?
A) $23,024.40
B) $18,947.20
C) $16,372.20
D) $21,522.20
E) $27,900.00

15.
The amount of bad debt expense can be estimated by:
A) Bad debt expense can be estimated by any of the three methods listed below
B) The percent of sales method
C) The aging of accounts receivable method
D) Only b and c
E) The percent of accounts receivable method

16.
Under the allowance method of accounting for uncollectible accounts receivable, no estimate is made to predict bad debts expense.
A) True
B) False

17.
The interest accrued on $3,600 at 7% for 60 days is:
A) $42
B) $252
C) $36
D) $180
E) $420

18.
Vine Company began operations on January 1, 2010. During its first year, the company completed a number of transactions involving sales on credit, accounts receivable collections, and bad debts. These transactions are summarized as follows:
 



What is the amount required for the adjusting journal entry to record bad debt expense?
A) $19,221.20
B) $19,400.20
C) $39,100.70
D) $19,783.80
E) $18,644.90

19.
Failure by a promissory note's maker to pay the amount due at maturity is known as:
A) Depreciating a note
B) Dishonoring a note
C) Closing a note
D) Protesting a note
E) Discounting a note
 
20.
The matching principle requires use of the direct write-off method of accounting for bad debts.
A) True
B) False

Module 6 Review


MODULE 6 REVIEW
1.
Cash equivalents:
A) Are short-term, highly liquid investments
B) Include 6-month CDs
C) Include checking accounts
D) Are recorded in petty cash
E) Include money orders
 
2.
The importance of cash is highlighted by the inclusion of a statement of cash flows in a complete set of financial statements, which reports on the changes in cash.
A) True
B) False

3.
It is not necessary for businesses to reconcile their checking accounts since banks keep accurate records and provide internal control support for cash.
A) True
B) False

4.
Basic bank services such as bank accounts, bank deposits and checking contribute to the control and safeguarding of cash.
A) True
B) False

5.
The payee is the person who signs a check and authorizes payment.
A) True
B) False

6.
At the end of the day, the cash register's record shows $1,000 but the count of cash in the register is $1,035. The proper entry to record this excess includes a:
A) Credit to Cash for $35
B) Debit to Cash for $35
C) Credit to Cash Over and Short for $35
D) Debit to Cash Over and Short for $35
E) Debit to Petty Cash for $35

7.
In Year 1 a company had net sales of $50,000 and ending accounts receivable of $2,000. In Year 2 this company had net sales of $80,000 and ending accounts receivable of $4,000. Use days' sales uncollected to determine which of the following statements is true?
A) Days' sales uncollected in Year 1 is 14.6 days and in Year 2 is 18.25 days. This measure indicates that the company's liquidity is declining
B) Days' sales uncollected in Year 1 is 14.6 days and in Year 2 is 18.25 days. This measure indicates that the company's liquidity is improving
C) Days' sales uncollected in Year 1 is 25 days and in Year 2 is 20 days. This measure indicates that the company's liquidity is declining
D) Days' sales uncollected in Year 1 is 25 days and in Year 2 is 20 days. This measure indicates that the company's liquidity is improving
E) Days' sales uncollected in Year 1 is .04 days and in Year 2 is .05 days. This measure indicates that the company's liquidity is improving

8.
Bonding does not discourage employees from stealing from the company as employees know that bonding is an insurance policy against loss from theft.
A) True
B) False

9.
An invoice is a document that is used within a company to notify the appropriate persons that ordered goods have been received and to describe the quantities and condition of the goods.
A) True
B) False

10.
A company had net sales of $31,500 and ending accounts receivable of $2,700 for the current period. Its days' sales uncollected is equal to:
A) 11.7 days
B) 23.3 days
C) 31.3 days
D) 42.5 days
E) 46.6 days

11.
Cancelled checks are checks the bank has paid and deducted from the customer's account during the period.
A) True
B) False

12.
Recording a purchase is initiated by an invoice approval, not an invoice.
A) True
B) False
 
 
13.
At the end of the day, the cash register's record shows $1,250, but the count of cash in the cash register is $1,245. The correct entry to record the cash sales for the day is:
A)



B)




C)



D)




E)
 

14.
In reimbursing the petty cash fund:
A) Cash is debited
B) Petty Cash is credited
C) Petty Cash is debited
D) Appropriate expense accounts are debited
E) No expenses are recorded

15.
Which of the following statements is true given the data below?
 


A) Both companies have the same degree of liquidity with regard to their accounts receivables
B) Company A is likely to collect account receivables more quickly than Company B
C) Company B is likely to collect account receivables more quickly than Company A
D) Company A and Company B will likely collect account receivables at the same time
E) It is impossible to estimate how much time it will take for these companies to collect their receivable based on the given information

16.
An NSF check for $17.50 would be recorded as a debit to Cash and a credit to Accounts Receivable.
A) True
B) False
 
17.
Cash equivalents are short-term highly liquid investment assets that are easily converted to cash and have maturities of one year.
A) True
B) False

18.
Cash receipts by mail require only two people: One to open the mail and a second person to deposit the cash in the bank and record the cash receipt in the accounting records.
A) True
B) False

19.
The principles of internal control include: establish responsibilities, maintain adequate records, insure assets, separate recordkeeping from custody of assets and perform regular and independent reviews.
A) True
B) False

20.
Fluffy Pet Grooming deposits all cash receipts on the day when they are received and all cash payments are made by check. At the close of business on June 30, its Cash account shows a $14,811, debit balance. Fluffy Pet Grooming's June 30 bank statement shows $14,472 on deposit in the bank. Prepare a bank reconciliation: for Fluffy Pet Grooming using the following information
 

What is the adjusted bank balance?
A) $14,265
B) $14,745
C) $14,677
D) $14,538
E) $14,877

Module 5 Review

1.
The lower of cost or market rule for inventory valuation must be applied to each individual unit separately and not to major categories of inventory or to the entire inventory.
A) True
B) False

2.
A company had inventory on November 1 of 5 units at a cost of $20 each. On November 2, they purchased 10 units at $22 each. On November 6 they purchased 6 units at $25 each. On November 5, 8 units were sold for $55 each. Using the Weighted Average perpetual inventory method, what was the value of the inventory on November 30?
A) $322.72
B) $304.00
C) $404.00
D) $280.00
E) $276.00

3.
Monthly or quarterly statements are called interim statements because they are prepared between the traditional annual statement dates.
A) True
B) False

4.
Damaged and obsolete goods:
A) Are never included in inventory
B) Are included in inventory at their net realizable value
C) Are assigned a value of zero
D) Are included in inventory at their full cost
E) Should be disposed of immediately

5.
GAAP and IFRS differ on the rules regarding LIFO as GAAP allows LIFO to assign costs to inventory and IFRS does not.
A) True
B) False

6.
The assignment of costs to cost of goods sold and to inventory using specific identification is the same for both the perpetual and periodic systems.
A) True
B) False

7.
The inventory valuation method that tends to smooth out erratic changes in costs is:
A) Specific identification
B) WIFO
C) FIFO
D) LIFO
E) Weighted average

8.
Given the following information, determine the cost of goods sold at December 31 using the LIFO perpetual inventory method.
December 2: 5 units were purchased at $7 per unit.
December 9: 10 units were purchased at $9.40 per unit.
December 11: 12 units were sold at $35 per unit.
December 15: 20 units were purchased at $10.15 per unit.
December 22: 18 units were sold at $35 per unit.
A) $282.15
B) $290.70
C) $281.25
D) $332.10
E) $210.30

9.
When LIFO is used with the periodic inventory system, cost of goods sold is assigned costs from the most recent purchases at the point of each sale, rather than from the most recent purchases for the period.
A) True
B) False

10.
The four methods of inventory valuation are SIFO, FIFO, LIFO and average cost.
A) True
B) False

11.
The FIFO inventory method assumes that costs for the most recently purchased items are the first to be charged to the cost of goods sold.
A) True
B) False

12.
Given the following events, what is the per-unit value of ending inventory on November 30 if this company uses a weighted-average perpetual inventory system?
November 1: 5 units were purchased at $6 per unit.
November 12: 10 units were purchased at $7.50 per unit.
November 14: 7 units were sold for $14 per unit.
November 24: 12 units were purchased at $10 per unit.
A) $21.80
B) $8.80
C) $6.00
D) $13.00
E) $7.00

13.
Errors in the period-end inventory balances only have an impact on the current period's records and financial statements.
A) True
B) False

14.
Incidental costs most commonly added to the costs of inventory include import duties, freight, storage and insurance.
A) True
B) False

15.
The matching principle is used by some companies to avoid allocating incidental inventory costs to cost of goods sold.
A) True
B) False

16.
Toys "R" Us had cost of goods sold of $9,421 million, ending inventory of $2,089 million and average inventory of $1,965 million. The inventory turnover equals:
A) 76.1 days
B) 4.51
C) 0.21
D) 4.79
E) 80.9 days
 
17.
Given the following information, determine the cost of ending inventory at December 31 using the FIFO perpetual inventory method.
December 2: 5 units were purchased at $7 per unit.
December 9: 10 units were purchased at $9.40 per unit.
December 11: 12 units were sold at $35 per unit.
December 15: 20 units were purchased at $10.15 per unit.
December 22: 18 units were sold at $35 per unit.
A) $94.00
B) $51.75
C) $41.30
D) $83.22
E) $50.75

18.
Merchandise inventory includes:
A) Only damaged goods
B) All goods in transit
C) Only items that are on the shelf
D) All goods on consignment
E) All goods owned by a company and held for sale

19.
If the seller is responsible for paying freight charges, then ownership of inventory passes when goods arrive at their destination.
A) True
B) False
 
20.
A company has the following per unit original costs and replacement costs for its inventory:
Part A: 50 units with a cost of $5 and replacement cost of $4.50
Part B: 75 units with a cost of $6 and replacement cost of $6.50
Part C: 160 units with a cost of $3 and replacement cost of $2.50
Under the lower of cost or market method, the total value of this company's ending inventory is:
A) $1,180.00
B) $1180.00 or $1075.00, depending upon whether LCM is applied to individual items or to the inventory as a whole
C) $1,112.50 or $1075.00, depending upon whether LCM is applied to individual items or the inventory as a whole
D) $1,075.00
E) $1,112.50